That since they both came in an oppressed the local Arabs of the 1830s (who are in no way ever included in the definition of Palestian?) and took their land that but migration continued so the Israeli pushing of Palestinians off of the land is just a continuation of what both sides did to the definitely never Palestinian Arabs who were there earlier and so it isn’t wrong?
So you’re arguing what exactly?
That since they both came in an oppressed the local Arabs of the 1830s (who are in no way ever included in the definition of Palestian?) and took their land that but migration continued so the Israeli pushing of Palestinians off of the land is just a continuation of what both sides did to the definitely never Palestinian Arabs who were there earlier and so it isn’t wrong?